Talk:benneteket

@Panda10 Is there any particular reason why the accusative forms of personal pronouns are not treated as pronoun forms, but instead as lemmas on their own? – I understand vele etc. cannot be a non-lemma form because it forms the basis for velem, veled, vele etc., but it's not the case with the accusative. Adam78 (talk) 19:54, 21 December 2021 (UTC)

@Adam78 No reason, they have irregular forms and maybe that's why. Please feel free to change them. Panda10 (talk) 21:39, 21 December 2021 (UTC)